Now, in that same article, the author said other things to support his position. But if conscious torment in a conscious afterlife is false, then would it be wrong for Jesus to imply that it is real? Why would Jesus use a lie (consciousness after death, along with punishment) to illustrate a truth about treating people properly if there is no consciousness after death? It makes no sense. The conditionalist would have to say that the account of the conscious bliss and conscious torment of Lazarus and the rich man in the afterlife is not true. After all, Jesus speaks of people in the afterlife! While it is certainly true that we can glean from Christ’s words the necessity of dealing properly with the poor, to say that it denies any details in the afterlife is, in my opinion, ludicrous.
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